essay paper upsc 2014

UPSC Mains (2014) Essay Question Paper

The IAS Main(Written) Exam 2014 commenced from 14 December 2014. The  Essay paper of IAS Main(Written) Exam 2014 is given as follows.  ( ESSAY (Ppaer) Time Allowed: Three Hours

Maximum Marks: 250

Write TWO Essays, choosing ONE from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000-1200 words each:      5×2=250

Q.1)   With greater power comes greater responsibility.

Q.2)  Is the growing level of competition good for the youth?

Q.3)  Are the standardized tests good measure of academic ability or progress?

Q.4)  Words are Sharper than the two-edged sword.

Q.1)  Was it the policy paralysis or the paralysis of implementation which slowed the growth of our country?

Q.2)  Is sting operation an invasion on privacy?

Q.3)  Fifty Golds in Olympics: Can this be a reality for India?

Q.4)  Tourism: Can this be the next big thing for India?

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UPSC Mains 2014 GS4 Question Paper Analysis

Last updated on September 10, 2023 by Alex Andrews George

All the questions were compulsory. There were 10 mark questions as well as 20 mark questions divided between 2 sections : section A and section B. UPSC wanted to answer the questions in Section A in NOT MORE THAN 150 words each and questions in Section B in NOT MORE THAN 250 words.

It was also mentioned that contents of the answer as more important than its length. 2 pages were left blank for questions in Section A while 3 pages were left blank to answer each question in Section B.

Table of Contents

UPSC Mains 2014 GS4 Question Paper

Section – A

• (a) All human beings aspire for happiness. Do you agree? What does happiness mean to you? Explain with answers. (150 Words) (10 M) (b)What does ethics seek to promote in human life? Why is it all the more important in Public Administration? (150 Words) (10 M)
• (a) In the context of defence services, ‘patriotism’ demands readiness to even lay down one’s life in protecting the nation. According to you, what does patriotism imply in everyday civil life? Explain with illustrations and justify your answer. (150 Words) (10 M) (b) What do you understand by ‘probity’ in public life? What are the difficulties in practicing it in the present times? How can these difficulties be overcome? ( 150 Words) (10 M)
• (a) “Integrity without knowledge is weak and useless, but knowledge without integrity is dangerous and dreadful.” What do you understand by this statement? Explain your stand with illustrations from modern day context. (150 Words) (10 M) (b) “Human beings should always be treated as ‘ends’ in themselves and never as ‘means’.” Explain the meaning and significance of this statement, giving it’s implications in the modern techno-economic society. (150 Words) (10 M)
• (a) Which eminent personality has inspired you the most in the context of ethical conduct in life? Give the Gist of his/her teachings. Giving specific examples describe how you have been able to apply these teachings for your own ethical development. (150 Words) (10 M) (b) There is a heavy ethical responsibility on the public servants because they occupy positions of power, handle huge amounts of public funds, and their decisions have wide ranging impact on society and environment. What steps have you taken to improve your ethical competence to handle such responsibility? (150 Words) (10 M)
• (a) The current society is plagued with widespread trust-deficit. What are the consequences of this situation for personal well-being and for societal well-being? What can you do at the personal level to make yourself trustworthy? (150 Words) (10 M) (b) It is often said that poverty leads to corruption. However there is no dearth of instances where affluent and powerful people indulge in corruption in a big way. What are the basic causes of corruption among people? Support your answer with examples. (150 Words) (10 M)
• What factors affect the formation of a person’s attitude towards social problems? In our society, contrasting attitudes are prevalent about many social problems. What contrasting attitudes do you notice about the caste system in our society? How do you explain the existence of these contrasting attitudes? (150 Words) (10 M)
• What does ‘accountability’ mean in the context of public service ? What measures can be adopted to ensure individual and collective accountability of public servants? (150 Words) (10 M)
• We are witnessing increasing instances of sexual violence against women in the country. Despite existing legal provisions against it, the number of such incidences is on the rise. Suggest some innovative measures to tackle this menace. (150 Words) (10 M)

Section – B

In the following questions, carefully study the cases presented and then answer the questions that follow:

• Question 9 : Now-a-days, there is an increasing thrust on economic development all around the globe. At the same time, there is also an increasing concern about environmental degradation caused by development. Many a time, we face a direct conflict between development activity and environmental quality. It is neither feasible to stop or curtail the developmental process, nor it is advisable to keep degrading the environment, as it threatens our very survival. Discuss some feasible strategies which could be adopted to eliminate this conflict and which could lead to sustainable development. (250 Words) (20 M)
• Question 10 : Suppose one of your close friends, who is also aspiring for civil services, comes to you for discussing some of the issues related to ethical conduct in public service. He raises the following points:- (i)In the present times, when unethical environment is quite prevalent, individual attempts to stick to ethical principles may cause a lot of problems in one’s career. It may cause hardship to the family members as well as risk to one’s life. Why should we not be pragmatic and follow the path of least resistance, and be happy with doing whatever good we can? (ii) When so many people are adopting wrong means and are grossly harming the system, what difference would it make if only a small minority tries to be ethical? They are going t be rather ineffective and are bound to get frustrated. (iii) If we become fussy about ethical considerations, will it not hamper the economic progress of our country? After all in the present age of high competition we cannot afford to be left behind in the race of development (iv) It is understandable that we should not get involved in grossly unethical practices, but giving and accepting small gratifications and doing small favours increases everybody’s motivation. It also makes the system more efficient. What is wrong in adopting such practices? Critically analyze the above viewpoints. On the basis of this analysis, what will be your advice to your friend? (250 Words) (20 M)
• Question 11: You are a no-nonsense, honest officer. You have been transferred to a remote district to head a department that is notorious for its inefficiency and callousness. You find that the main cause of the poor state of affairs is the indiscipline of a section of employees. They do not work themselves and also disrupt the workings of others. You first warned the troublemakers to mend their ways or else face disciplinary action. When the warning had little effect, you issued a show cause notice to the ringleaders. As a retaliatory measure, these troublemakers instigated a woman employee amongst them to file a complaint of sexual harassment against you with the Women’s Commission. The Commission promptly seeks your explanation. The matter is also publicized in the media to embarrass you further. Some of the options to handle this situation could be as follows: (i) Give your explanation to the Commission and go soft on the disciplinary action. (ii) Ignore the commission and proceed firmly with the disciplinary action. (iii) Brief your higher-ups, seek directions from them and act accordingly. Suggest any other possible option(s). Evaluate all of them and suggest the best course of action, giving your reasons for it. (250 Words) (20 M)
• Question 12 : Suppose you are the CEO of a company that manufactures specialized electronic equipment used by a government department. You have submitted your bid for the supply of this equipment to the department. Both the quality and cost of your offer are better than those of the competitors. Yet the concerned officer is demanding a hefty bribe for approving the tender Getting the order is important both for you and your company. Not getting the order would mean closing a production line. It may also affect your own career. However, as a value-conscious person, You do not want to give bribe. Valid arguments can be advanced both for giving the bribe and getting the order, and for refusing to pay the bribe and risking the loss of the order. What those arguments could be, Could there be any better way to get out of this dilemma? If so, outline the main elements of this third way, pointing out its merits. (250 Words) (20 M)
• Question 13: Rameshwar successfully cleared the prestigious civil services examination and was excited about the opportunity that he would get through the civil services to serve the country. However, soon after joining the services, he realized that things are not as rosy as he had imagined. He found a number of malpractices prevailing in the department assigned to him. For example, funds under various schemes and grants were being misappropriated. The official facilities were frequently being used for personal needs by the officers and staff. After some time, he noticed that the process of recruiting the staff was also not up to the mark. Prospective candidates were required to write an examination in which a lot of cheating was going on. Some candidates were provided external help in the examination. Rameshwar brought these incidents to the notice of his seniors. However, he was advised to keep his eyes, ears and mouth shut and ignore all these things which were taking place with the connivance of the higher-ups. Rameshwar felt highly disillusioned and uncomfortable. He comes to you seeking your advice. Indicate various options that you think are available in this situation. How would you help him to evaluate these options and choose the most appropriate path to be adopted? (250 words) (20 M)
• Question 14 : In our country, the migration of rural people to towns and cities is increasing drastically. This is causing serious problems both in the rural as well as in the urban areas. In fact, things are becoming really unmanageable. Can you analyze this problem in detail and indicate not only the socio-economic but also the emotional and attitudinal factors responsible for this problem? Also, distinctly bring out why – (a) educated youth are trying to shift to urban areas (b) landless poor people are migrating to urban slums (c) even some farmers are selling off the, land and trying to settle in urban areas taking , petty jobs. What feasible steps can you suggest which will be effective in controlling this serious problem of our country? (250 words) (20 M)

IAS Mains 2014 General Studies Paper 4 (GS4) : Break-Up of Marks

• Short answers – 13 Questions =130 marks.
• Case studies – 6 questions = 120 marks.

Comparison of Mains 2014 GS4 Question Paper with Mains 2013 GS4 Question Paper

Mains 2014 GS4 (Ethics) Question paper followed almost the same pattern as Mains 2013 GS4 (Ethics) Question paper, barring a few differences. There were 6 case studies in 2013 too, but the 2014 case-studies touched new areas like migration and environment-development debate apart from the real-life situational case studies.  Detailed analysis of 2013 GS4 paper is available in this link . It was 125 marks worth case studies in 2013, now it’s 120. No big difference. There was one 15 mark question and one 25 mark case study in 2013. In 2014, only 10 markers and 20 markers were asked.

UPSC CSE 2025: Study Plan ⇓

(1) ⇒ UPSC 2025: Prelims cum Mains

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• A honest evaluation of GS4 reveals one thing : no traditional-theory-oriented-classroom-intensive-coaching was needed to answer this paper. UPSC didn’t focus on the theory part like in the previous year, and the commission framed very similar questions. This move might be to know the psychology of the candidate, to evaluate if he moves back from his stand/ethics.
• Most of the questions seeked opinion from the candidate/ real life experience/ideologies to prove his point.
• The introduction of case-studies on environment and migration brought the surprise element to many. These questions were more sociology related than ethics, but it’s good that UPSC exploring new areas.
• Due to repeated self-marketing, many aspirants felt the paper as boring. Time management was crucial in this paper too.
• The 2014 official UPSC question paper had many questions from Clear IAS Answer Writing Test Series and Mock Tests . We shall come up with the details of that later in another post.

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Previous Year Question Papers - 2014

NEW!    UPSC MAINS G.S. SOLVED PAPERS (LAST 15 Years)

Download UPSC IAS Mains Previous Year Question Papers

Year : 2014, download upsc mains gs 10 year papers pdf, download upsc mains gs solved papers pdf, compulsory papers:.

• General Studies Paper - I
• General Studies Paper - II
• General Studies Paper - III
• General Studies Paper - IV

Optional Papers:

• Agriculture (Paper -1)
• Agriculture (Paper -2)
• Animal Husbandary & Veterinary Science (Paper - 1)
• Animal Husbandary & Veterinary Science (Paper - 2)
• Anthropology (Paper - 1)
• Anthropology (Paper - 2)
• Botany (Paper - 1)
• Botany (Paper - 2)
• Chemistry (Paper - 1)
• Chemistry (Paper - 2)
• Civil Engineering (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Commerce & Accountancy (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Economics (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Electrical Engineering (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Geography (Paper -1)
• Geography (Paper -2)
• Geology (Paper - 1)
• Geology (Paper - 2)
• History (Paper -1)
• History (Paper -2)
• Law (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Management (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Mechanical Engineering (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Medical Science (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Mathematics (Paper - 1)
• Mathematics (Paper - 2)
• Public Administration (Paper - 1)
• Public Administration (Paper - 2)
• Physics (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Philosophy (Paper - 1)
• Philosophy (Paper - 2)
• Political Science (Paper -1)
• Political Science (Paper -2)
• Psychology (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Sociology (Paper -1)
• Sociology (Paper -2)
• Statistics (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)
• Hindi Literature (Paper -1)
• Hindi Literature (Paper -2)
• Sanskrit (Paper -1)
• Sanskrit (Paper -2)
• Zoology (Paper - 1 & Paper - 2)

Compulsory Indian Language:

• Sindhi (Devanagari)
• Sindhi (Arabic)

Literature Subjects:

• Assamese (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Bengali (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• English (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Gujarati (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Hindi (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Kannada (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Manipuri (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Maithili (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Malayalam (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Marathi (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Oriya (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Punjabi (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Sanskrit (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Santhali (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Sindhi "Arabic" (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Sindhi "Devanagari" (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Tamil (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Telugu (Paper - I + Paper - II)
• Urdu (Paper - I + Paper - II) ​​​​​​​

UPSC Mains Hindi Papers 2014

Upsc सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा 2014 सामान्य अध्ययन (gs) paper-1, upsc सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा 2014 सामान्य अध्ययन (gs) paper-2, upsc सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा 2014 सामान्य अध्ययन (gs) paper-3, upsc सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा 2014 सामान्य अध्ययन (gs) paper-4.

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UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination – 2014: ESSAY Paper

Categories: Optional

UPSC IAS Mains Essay (Compulsory) Paper – 2014

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

The ESSAY must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit, as specified, should be adhered to.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Write TWO Essays, choosing ONE from each, of the Sections A and B, in about 1000-1200 words each:

1. With greater power comes greater responsibility.

2. Is the growing level of competition good for the youth?

3. Are the standardized tests good measure of academic ability or progress?

4. Words are sharper than the two-edged sword.

1.Was it the policy paralysis or the paralysis of implementation which slowed the , growth of our country?

2. Is sting operation an invasion on privacy?

3. Fifty Golds in Olympics : Can this be a reality for India?

4. Tourism : Can this be the next big thing for India?

Verifying, please be patient.

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UPSC Mains Question Paper – 2014

Practicing with the previous year’s UPSC question papers is a highly recommended strategy to understand the nature of the exam. Solving authentic IAS question paper will give you a true sense of the pattern and style of questions that will be asked on the UPSC Mains exam.

Once the recruitment process is complete, the conducting body releases official UPSC previous year question papers PDFs along with their answer keys. It is crucial for IAS exam candidates to focus on solving and answering these questions to grasp the level of difficulty of the examination.

This article presents the previous year’s UPSC main question paper of 2014. Doing well on these papers will boost a candidate’s confidence and assist them in identifying the most important topics from the civil services exam perspective.

Table of Contents

UPSC Mains General Studies Paper – 1 Mains 2014

1. To what extent has the urban planning and culture of the Indus Valley Civilization provided inputs to the present day urbanization? Discuss.

2. Gandhara sculpture owed as much to the Romans as to the Greeks. Explain.

3. Taxila university was one of the oldest universities of the world with which were associated a number of renowned learned personalities of different disciplines. Its strategic location caused its fame to flourish, but unlike Nalanda, it is not considered as a university in the modern sense. Discuss.

4. The third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761. Why were so many empire-shaking battles fought at Panipat?

5. Sufis and medieval mystic saints failed to modify either the religious ideas and practices or the outward structure of Hindu / Muslim societies to any appreciable extent. Comment.

6. Examine critically the various facets of economic policies of the British in India from mid-eighteenth century till independence.

7. In what ways did the naval mutiny prove to be the last nail in the coffin of British colonial aspirations in India?

8. What were the major political, economic and social developments in the world which motivated the anti-colonial struggle in India?

9. What were the events that led to the Suez Crisis in 1956? How did it deal a final blow to Britain’s self-image as a world power?

10. The New Economic Policy – 1921 of Lenin had influenced the policies adopted by India soon after independence. Evaluate.

11. How does patriarchy impact the position of a middle class working woman in India?

12. Why do some of the most prosperous regions of India have an adverse sex ratio for women? Give your arguments.

13. The life cycle of a joint family depends on economic factors rather than social values. Discuss.

14. Discuss the various economic and socio-cultural forces that are driving increasing feminization of agriculture in India.

15. How do the Indian debates on secularism differ from the debates in the West?

16. Most of the unusual climatic happenings are explained as an outcome of the El-Nino effect. Do you agree?

17. Why are the world’s fold mountain systems located along the margins of continents? Bring out the association between the global distribution of fold mountains and the earthquakes and volcanoes.

18. Explain the formation of thousands of islands in Indonesian and Philippines archipelagos.

19. Tropical cyclones are largely confined to South China Sea, Bay of Bengal and Gulf of Mexico. Why?

20. Bring out the relationship between the shrinking Himalayan glaciers and the symptoms of climate change in the Indian sub-continent.

21. Whereas the British planters had developed tea gardens all along the Shivaliks and Lesser Himalayas from Assam to Himachal Pradesh, in effect they did not succeed beyond the Darjeeling area. Explain.

22. Why did the Green Revolution in India virtually by-pass the eastern region despite fertile soil and good availability of water?

23. Account for the change in the spatial pattern of the Iron and Steel industry in the world.

24. Critically evaluate the various resources of the oceans which can be harnessed to meet the resource crisis in the world.

25. How does India see its place in the economic space of rising natural resource rich Africa?

UPSC Mains General Studies Paper – 2 Mains 2014

1. Starting from inventing the ‘basic structure’ doctrine, the judiciary has played a highly proactive role in ensuring that India develops into a thriving democracy. In light of the statement, evaluate the role played by judicial activism in achieving the ideals of democracy.

2. Though the federal principle is dominant in our Constitution and that priniciple is one of its basic features, but it is equally true that federalism under the Indian Constitution leans in favour of a strong Centre, a feature that militates against the concept of strong federalism.

3. The ‘Powers, Privileges and Immunities of Parliament and its Members’ as envisaged in Article 105 of the Constitution leave room for a large number of un-codified and un-enumerated privileges to continue. Assess the reasons for the absence of legal codification of the ‘parliamentary privileges’. How can this problem be addressed?

4. What do understand by the concept “freedom of speech and expression”? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.

5. Instances of President’s delay in commuting death sentences has come under public debate as denial of justice. Should there be a time specified for the President to accept/rejectsuch petitions? Analyse

6. The size of the cabinet should be as big as governmental work justifies and as big as the Prime Minister can manage as a team. How far is the efficacy of a government then inversely related to the size of the cabinet? Discuss.

7. Though 100 percent FDI is already allowed in non-news media like a trade publication and general entertainment channel, the government is mulling over the proposal for increased FDI in news media for quite some time. What difference would an increase in FDI make? Critically evaluate the pros and cons.

8. The setting up of a Rail Tariff Authority to regulate fares will subject the cash strapped Indian Railways to demand subsidy for obligation to operate non-profitable routes and services. Taking into account the experience in the power sector, discuss if the proposed reform is expected to benefit the consumers, the Indian Railways or the private container operators.

9. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in India can be most effective when its tasks are adequately supported by other mechanisms that ensure the accountability of a government. In light of above observation assess the role of NHRC as an effective complement to the judiciary and other institutions in promoting and protecting human rights standards.

10. The penetration of Self Help Groups (SHGs) in rural areas in promoting participation in development programmes is facing socio-cultural hurdles. Examine.

11. Do government’s schemes for up-lifting vulnerable and backward communities by protecting required social resources for them, lead to their exclusion in establishing businesses in urban economies?

12. An athlete participates in Olympics for personal triumph and nation’s glory; victors are showered with cash incentives by various agencies, on their return. Discuss the merit of state sponsored talent hunt and its cultivation as against the rationale of a reward mechanism as encouragement.

13. Should the premier institutes like IITs/IIMs be allowed to retain premier status, allowed more academic independence in designing courses and also decide mode/criteria of selection of students. Discuss in light of the growing challenges.

14. Has the Cadre based Civil Services Organization been the cause of slow in India? Critically examine.

15. Two parallel run schemes of the Government, viz the Adhar card and NPR, one of voluntary and the other as compulsory, have led to debates at national levels and also litigations. On merits , discuss whether or not both schemes need run concurrently. Analyse the potential of the schemes to achieve development benefits and equitable growth.

16. With respect to the South China sea, maritime territorial disputes and rising tension affaire the need for safeguarding maritime security to ensure freedom of navigation and ever flight throughout the region. In this context, discuss the bilateral issues between India and China.

17. The aim of Information Technology Agreements (ITAs) is to lower all taxes and tariffs on Information technology products by signatories to zero. What impact would such agreements have on India’s interests?

18. Some of the International funding agencies have special terms for economic participation stipulating a substantial component of the aid used for sourcing equipment from the leading countries. Discuss on merits of such terms and it, there exists astrong case not to accept such conditions in the Indian context.

19. India has recently signed to become founding member of New Development Bank (NDB) and also the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB). How will the role of the two Banks be different? Discuss the strategic significance of these two Banks for India.

20. WTO is an important international institution where decisions taken affect countries in aprofound manner. What is the mandate of WTO and how binding are their decisions? Critically analyse India’s stand on the latest round of talks on Food security.

UPSC Mains General Studies Paper – 3 Mains 2014

1. Normally countries shift from agriculture to industry and then later to services, but India shifted directly from agriculture to services. What are the reasons for the huge growth-services vis-a-vis industry in the country? Can India become a developed country without a strong industrial base?

2. “While we flaunt India’s demographic dividend, we ignore the dropping rates of employability.” What are we missing while doing so? Where will the jobs that India desperately needs come from? Explain.

3. There is also a point of view that Agricultural Produce Market Committees [APMCs) set up under the State Acts have not only impeded the development of agriculture but also have been the cause of food inflation in India. Critically examine.

4. “In the villages itself no form of credit organization will be suitable except the cooperative society.” –  All India Rural Credit Survey . Discuss this statement in the background of agricultural finance in India. What constraints and challenges do financial institutions supplying agricultural finance face? How can technology be used to better reach and serve rural clients?

5. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 has come into effect from Ist January, 2014. What are the key issues which would get addressed with the Act in place? What implications would it have on industrialization and agriculture in India?

6. Capitalism has guided the world economy to unprecedented prosperity. However, it often encourages short-sightedness and contributes to wide disparities between the rich and the poor. In this light, would it be correct to believe and adopt capitalism for bringing inclusive growth in India? Discuss.

7. Explain how Private Public Partnership arrangements, in long gestation infrastructure projects, can transfer unsustainable liabilities to the future. What arrangements need to be put in place to ensure that successive generations’ capacities are not compromised?

8. National Urban Transport Policy emphasises on ‘moving people’ instead of ‘moving vehicles’. Discuss critically the success of the various strategies of the Government in this regard.

9. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the defence sector is now set to be liberalized: What influence this is expected to have on Indian defence and economy in the short and long run?

10. Scientific research in Indian universities is declining, because a career in science is not as attractive as are business professions, engineering or administration, and the universities are becoming consumer-oriented. Critically comment.

11. Can overuse and free availability of antibiotics without Doctor’s prescription, be contributors to the emergence of drug-resistant diseases in India? What are the available mechanisms for monitoring and control? Critically discuss the various issues involved.

12. In a globalized world, Intellectual Property Rights assume significance and are a source of litigation. Broadly distinguish between the terms—Copyrights, Patents and Trade Secrets.

13. Should the pursuit of carbon credits and clean development mechanisms set up under UNFCCC be maintained even though there has been a massive slide in the value of a carbon credit? Discuss with respect to India’s energy needs for economic growth.

14. Drought has been recognized as a disaster in view of its spatial expanse, temporal duration, slow onset and lasting effects on vulnerable sections. With a focus on the September 2010 guidelines from the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), discuss the mechanisms for preparedness to deal with likely El Nino and La Nina fallouts in India.

15. Environmental Impact Assessment studies are increasingly undertaken before a project is cleared by the Government. Discuss the environmental impacts of coal-fired thermal plants located at coal pitheads.

16. “The diverse nature of India as a multi-religious and multi-ethnic society is not immune to the impact of radicalism which is seen in her neighbourhood? Discuss along with strategies to be adopted to counter this environment.

17. International civil aviation laws provide all countries complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above their territory. What do you understand by ‘airspace’ What are the implications of these laws on the space above this airspace? Discuss the challenges which this poses and suggest ways to contain the threat.

18. How does illegal trans-border migration pose a threat to India’s security? Discuss the strategies to curb this, bringing out the factors which give impetus to such migration.

19. In 2012, the longitudinal marking for high-risk areas for piracy was moved from 65 degrees east to 78 degrees east in the Arabian Sea by the International Maritime Organisation. What impact does this have on India’s maritime security concerns?

20. China and Pakistan have entered into an agreement for development of an economic corridor. What threat does this pose for India’s security? Critically examine.

UPSC Mains General Studies Paper – 4 Mains 2014

Section – a.

• (a) All human beings aspire for happiness. Do you agree? What does happiness mean to you? Explain with answers. (150 Words) (10 M ) (b) What does ethics seek to promote in human life? Why is it all the more important in Public Administration? (150 Words) (10 M)
• (a)  In the context of defence services, ‘patriotism’ demands readiness to even lay down one’s life in protecting the nation. According to you, what does patriotism imply in everyday civil life? Explain with illustrations and justify your answer. (150 Words) (10 M)  (b)  What do you understand by ‘probity’ in public life? What are the difficulties in practicing it in the present times? How can these difficulties be overcome? ( 150 Words) (10 M)
• (a)  “Integrity without knowledge is weak and useless, but knowledge without integrity is dangerous and dreadful.” What do you understand by this statement? Explain your stand with illustrations from modern day context. (150 Words) (10 M)  (b)  “Human beings should always be treated as ‘ends’ in themselves and never as ‘means’.” Explain the meaning and significance of this statement, giving it’s implications in the modern techno-economic society. (150 Words) (10 M)
• (a)  Which eminent personality has inspired you the most in the context of ethical conduct in life? Give the Gist of his/her teachings. Giving specific examples describe how you have been able to apply these teachings for your own ethical development. (150 Words) (10 M)  (b)  There is a heavy ethical responsibility on the public servants because they occupy positions of power, handle huge amounts of public funds, and their decisions have wide ranging impact on society and environment. What steps have you taken to improve your ethical competence to handle such responsibility? (150 Words) (10 M)
• (a)  The current society is plagued with widespread trust-deficit. What are the consequences of this situation for personal well-being and for societal well-being? What can you do at the personal level to make yourself trustworthy? (150 Words) (10 M)  (b)  It is often said that poverty leads to corruption. However there is no dearth of instances where affluent and powerful people indulge in corruption in a big way. What are the basic causes of corruption among people? Support your answer with examples. (150 Words) (10 M)
• What factors affect the formation of a person’s attitude towards social problems? In our society, contrasting attitudes are prevalent about many social problems. What contrasting attitudes do you notice about the caste system in our society? How do you explain the existence of these contrasting attitudes? (150 Words) (10 M)
• What does ‘accountability’ mean in the context of public service ? What measures can be adopted to ensure individual and collective accountability of public servants? (150 Words) (10 M)
• We are witnessing increasing instances of sexual violence against women in the country. Despite existing legal provisions against it, the number of such incidences is on the rise. Suggest some innovative measures to tackle this menace. (150 Words) (10 M)

Section – B

Question 9 : Now-a-days, there is an increasing thrust on economic development all around the globe. At the same time, there is also an increasing concern about environmental degradation caused by development. Many a time, we face a direct conflict between development activity and environmental quality. It is neither feasible to stop or curtail the developmental process, nor it is advisable to keep degrading the environment, as it threatens our very survival. Discuss some feasible strategies which could be adopted to eliminate this conflict and which could lead to sustainable development. (250 Words) (20 M)

Question 10 : Suppose one of your close friends, who is also aspiring for civil services, comes to you for discussing some of the issues related to ethical conduct in public service. He raises the following points:- (i)In the present times, when unethical environment is quite prevalent, individual attempts to stick to ethical principles may cause a lot of problems in one’s career. It may cause hardship to the family members as well as risk to one’s life. Why should we not be pragmatic and follow the path of least resistance, and be happy with doing whatever good we can? (ii) When so many people are adopting wrong means and are grossly harming the system, what difference would it make if only a small minority tries to be ethical? They are going t be rather ineffective and are bound to get frustrated. (iii) If we become fussy about ethical considerations, will it not hamper the economic progress of our country? After all in the present age of high competition we cannot afford to be left behind in the race of development (iv) It is understandable that we should not get involved in grossly unethical practices, but giving and accepting small gratifications and doing small favours increases everybody’s motivation. It also makes the system more efficient. What is wrong in adopting such practices? Critically analyze the above viewpoints. On the basis of this analysis, what will be your advice to your friend? (250 Words) (20 M)

Question 11: You are a no-nonsense, honest officer. You have been transferred to a remote district to head a department that is notorious for its inefficiency and callousness. You find that the main cause of the poor state of affairs is the indiscipline of a section of employees. They do not work themselves and also disrupt the workings of others. You first warned the troublemakers to mend their ways or else face disciplinary action. When the warning had little effect, you issued a show cause notice to the ringleaders. As a retaliatory measure, these troublemakers instigated a woman employee amongst them to file a complaint of sexual harassment against you with the Women’s Commission. The Commission promptly seeks your explanation. The matter is also publicized in the media to embarrass you further. Some of the options to handle this situation could be as follows: (i) Give your explanation to the Commission and go soft on the disciplinary action. (ii) Ignore the commission and proceed firmly with the disciplinary action. (iii) Brief your higher-ups, seek directions from them and act accordingly. Suggest any other possible option(s). Evaluate all of them and suggest the best course of action, giving your reasons for it. (250 Words) (20 M)

Question 12 : Suppose you are the CEO of a company that manufactures specialized electronic equipment used by a government department. You have submitted your bid for the supply of this equipment to the department. Both the quality and cost of your offer are better than those of the competitors. Yet the concerned officer is demanding a hefty bribe for approving the tender Getting the order is important both for you and your company. Not getting the order would mean closing a production line. It may also affect your own career. However, as a value-conscious person, You do not want to give bribe. Valid arguments can be advanced both for giving the bribe and getting the order, and for refusing to pay the bribe and risking the loss of the order. What those arguments could be, Could there be any better way to get out of this dilemma? If so, outline the main elements of this third way, pointing out its merits. (250 Words) (20 M)

Question 13: Rameshwar successfully cleared the prestigious civil services examination and was excited about the opportunity that he would get through the civil services to serve the country. However, soon after joining the services, he realized that things are not as rosy as he had imagined. He found a number of malpractices prevailing in the department assigned to him. For example, funds under various schemes and grants were being misappropriated. The official facilities were frequently being used for personal needs by the officers and staff. After some time, he noticed that the process of recruiting the staff was also not up to the mark. Prospective candidates were required to write an examination in which a lot of cheating was going on. Some candidates were provided external help in the examination. Rameshwar brought these incidents to the notice of his seniors. However, he was advised to keep his eyes, ears and mouth shut and ignore all these things which were taking place with the connivance of the higher-ups. Rameshwar felt highly disillusioned and uncomfortable. He comes to you seeking your advice. Indicate various options that you think are available in this situation. How would you help him to evaluate these options and choose the most appropriate path to be adopted? (250 words) (20 M)

Question 14 : In our country, the migration of rural people to towns and cities is increasing drastically. This is causing serious problems both in the rural as well as in the urban areas. In fact, things are becoming really unmanageable. Can you analyze this problem in detail and indicate not only the socio-economic but also the emotional and attitudinal factors responsible for this problem? Also, distinctly bring out why – (a) educated youth are trying to shift to urban areas (b) landless poor people are migrating to urban slums (c) even some farmers are selling off the, land and trying to settle in urban areas taking , petty jobs. What feasible steps can you suggest which will be effective in controlling this serious problem of our country? (250 words) (20 M)

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. q: what is the format of the upsc mains civil services ias question paper in 20 14.

A: The UPSC Mains Civil Services IAS Question Paper in 2014 follows a descriptive format, consisting of essay-type questions and various papers covering subjects such as General Studies, Optional Subjects, and qualifying language papers.

2. Q: How many papers are there in the UPSC Mains Civil Services IAS Exam in 2014?

A: The UPSC Mains Civil Services IAS Exam in 2015 comprises a total of 9 papers, including two qualifying language papers. The rest of the papers cover General Studies, Essay, and Optional Subjects chosen by the candidates.

3. Q: Are there any changes in the UPSC Mains Exam pattern for 2014?

A: It’s advisable to check the latest UPSC notifications for any updates or changes in the exam pattern for the year 2014.

4. Q: Can I use a pen or pencil for writing answers in the UPSC Mains Exam?

A: Candidates are required to write their answers in the UPSC Mains Exam using a black ballpoint pen only. Pencils are not allowed for writing answers.

5. Q: How are the Optional Subject papers structured in the UPSC Mains Civil Services IAS Exam 2014?

A: Each Optional Subject in the UPSC Mains Exam consists of two papers (Paper-I and Paper-II), each carrying 250 marks. The syllabus for Optional Subjects is specified by the UPSC, and candidates can choose from a list of approved subjects based on their interests and expertise.

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Papers / 28 Feb 2024

(Download) UPSC IAS, Civil Services (Prelim) 2014 Solved Exam Question Paper "General Studies (GS Paper -1)" English Medium

(Download) UPSC IAS, Civil Services (Prelim) 2014 Solved Exam Question Paper "General Studies (GS Paper -1)" English Medium

Exam Name: UPSC IAS Civil Services Prelims 2014

Subject: General Studies (GS) Paper -1

Medium: English

1. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative'?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the 'Montreux Record', what does it imply?

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference. (b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo metres from the edge of the wetland (c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed (d) It is given the status of 'World Heritage Site'

3. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the 'Ten Degree Channel'?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Nicobar and Sumatra (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra and Java

4. Consider the following pairs :

Which of the above pairs

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

5. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements :

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

6. With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) It serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change' (b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level (c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment. (d) Both (a) and (b)

7. With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements:

1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while 'Solar Thermal' is a technology that utilizes the Sun's rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process. 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC). 3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

8. Consider the following languages :

1. Gujatati 2. Kannada 3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as 'Classical Language / Languages' by the Government?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Consider the following pairs

1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram 2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim 3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

10. With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International', which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

12. Consider the following diseases

1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox 3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

13. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles

14. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally 4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

(a) solve the problem of minorities in India (b) give effect to the Independence Bill (c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan (d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal

16. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

17. Consider the following :

1. Bats 2. Bears 3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

18. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts (b) The Committee on Estimates (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings (d) The Committee on Petitions.

19. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic matter

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

1. Painted Stork 2. Common Myna 3. Black-necked Crane

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

21. In medieval India, the designations 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for

(a) military officers (b) village headmen (e) specialists in Vedic rituals (d) chiefs of craft guilds

22. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological suecession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

(a) algae and bacteria (b) algae and fungi (c) bacteria and fungi (d) fungi and mosses

23. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

1. Oak 2. Rhododendron 3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?

1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (e) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

25. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated With the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti 2. Gandhara 3. Kosala 4. Magadha

Select the correct nswer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4

26. Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

(a) Bhutia and Lepcha (b) Gond and Korku (e) lrula and Toda (d) Sahariya and Agariya

27. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

(a) tax imposed by the Central Government (b) tax tmposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government (c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government (d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government

28. What does venture capital mean?

(a) A short-term capital provided to industries (b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs (c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses (d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries

29. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

(a) inclusive growth and poverty reductions (b) inclusive and sustainable growth (c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment (d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

30. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

1. Balance of trade 2. Foreign assets 3. Balance of invisibles 4. Special Drawing Rights

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

31. The terms 'Marginal Standing Facility Rate' and 'Net Demand and Time Liabilities', sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

(a) banking operations (b) communication networking (e) military strategies (d) supply and demand of agricultural products

32. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages. 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

33. In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of 'Statutory Reserve Requirements'?

1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create 2. To make the people's deposits with banks safe and liquid 3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

34. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as 'Arab Spring' originally started from

(a) Egypt (b) Lebanono (c) Syria (d) Tunisia

35. Consider the following countries :

1. Denmark 2. Japan 3. Russian Federation 4. United Kingdom 5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the 'Arctic Council '?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5

36. Consider the following pairs :

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

37. Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

38. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas', consider the following 'statements:

1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

39. With reference to 'Changpa' community of India, consider the following statement :

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand. 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool. 3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

40. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas (c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti-histamines (d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel

41. Which of the following have coral reefs?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Gulf of Kachchh 3. Gulf of Mannar 4. Sunderbans

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation 2. Deforestation 3. Tropical climate'

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

43. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

(a) Equatorial climate (b) Mediterranean climate (c) Monsoon climate (d) All of the above climates

44. With reference to the cultural history of India, the term 'Panchayatan' refers to

(a) an assembly of village elders (b) a religious sect (c) a style of temple construction (d) an administrative functionary

45. Consider the following rivers:

1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

46. Consider the following pairs :

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (e) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

47. Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta (b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika (c) Lokayata and Kapalika (d) Sankhya and Yoga

48. Consider the following pairs :

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

49. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule (e) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule

50. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

(a) biosphere reserves (b) botanical gardens (e) national parks (d) wildlife sanctuaries

51. Turkey is located between

(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea (c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea (d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

52. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok 2. Hanoi 3. Jakarta 4. Singapore

(a) 4-2-1-3 (b) 3-2-4-1 (c) 3-4-1-2 (d) 4-3-2-1

53. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

54. The national motto of India, 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

(a) Katha Upanishad (b) Chandogya Upanishad (c) Aitareya Upanishad (d) Mundaka Upanishad

55. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

(a) Preamble to the Constitution (b) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) Fundamental Duties (d) Ninth Schedule

56. What are the benefits of implementing the 'Integrated Watershed Development Programme'?

1. Prevention of soil runoff 2. Linking the country's perennial rivers with seasonal rivers 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

57. Which of the following are associated with 'Planning' in India?

1. The Finance Commission 2. The National Development Council 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development 5. The Parliament

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

58. Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

59. Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

(a) 1 and 2 only. (b) 1 and 3 only. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

61. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

(a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy (b) increase the tax collection of the Government (c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy (d) increase the total savings in the economy

62. Consider the following statements :

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

63. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

64. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents. 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

65. Which one of the. following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored (c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water (d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

66. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

1. Iris scanning 2. Retinal scanning 3. Voice recognition

67. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus. 3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

68. Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?

69. Consider the following pairs :

70. Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride 2. Melting of ice 3. Souring of milk

71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction (b) appellate jurisdiction. (c) original jurisdiction (d) writ jurisdiction

72. Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None

73. Consider the following statements :

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch. 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

(a) 1 only. (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

(a) Crab (b) Mite (c) Scorpion (d) Spider

75. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India (b) the Parliament (c) the Chief Justice of India (d) the Law Commission

76. Consider the following towns of India :

1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi 3. Kancheepuram 4. Kamal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

77. Consider the following pairs :

78. Consider the following international agreements:

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

79. Consider the following statements regarding 'Earth Hour' :

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. 2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year. 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

80. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings (b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings (c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans (d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

81. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

(a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended. (b) King George V abrogated Curzon's Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911 (c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement (d) the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

82. The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress (b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress (c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched (d) decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

83. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements :

1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama. 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam. 3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

84. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

(a) 22 March (or 21st March) (b) 15th May (or 16th May) (c) 31st March (or 30th March) (d) 21st April (or 20th April

85. With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

86. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

(a) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco. (b) nationalist organization operating from Singapore (c) militant organization with headquarters at Berlin (d) communist movement for India's freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent

87. With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is 'Kalaripayattu'?

(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India (b) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area (c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

88. Consider the following pairs :

1. Garba : Gujarat 2. Mohiniattam : Odisha 3. Yakshagana : Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

89. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs :

90. Consider the following statements:

1. 'Bijak' is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal. 2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

91. A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

(a) martial arts in North-East India (b) musical tradition in North-West India (c) classical vocal music in South India (d) pietra dura tradition in Central India

92. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858)?

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States 2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown 3. To regulate East India Company's trade with India

93. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

(a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family (b) Akbar's private chamber prayer (c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions. (d) the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs

94. In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the 'Seed Replacement Rates' of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?

1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place. 2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops. 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) None

95. With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones', which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 . 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

96. Consider the following statements:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body. 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Consider the following pairs :

98. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. 2. They can enter the food chains. 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

99. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as 'World Economic Outlook'?

(a) The International Monetary Fund (b) The United Nations Development Programme (c) The World Economic Forum (d) The World Bank

100. With reference to Union Budget, which of the following, is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

1. Defence expenditure 2. Interest payments 3. Salaries and pensions 4. Subsidiess

(a) 1 only (b) 2 nd 3 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None

:: Answer Keys ::

1. (b), 2. (a), 3. (a), 4. (d), 5. (c), 6. (a), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (c), 10. (b), 11. (b), 12. (b), 13. (c), 14. (c), 15. (c), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (b), 21. (b), 22. (b), 23. (a), 24. (d), 25. (c), 26. (b), 27. (d), 28. (b), 29. (d), 30. (c), 31. (a), 32. (c), 33. (a), 34. (d), 35. (d), 36. (a), 37. (a), 38. (d), 39. (b), 40. (b), 41. (a), 42. (b), 43. (c), 44. (c), 45. (b), 46. (a), 47. (c), 48. (c), 49. (d), 50. (a), 51. (b), 52. (c), 53. (b), 54. (d), 55. (b), 56. (c), 57. (c), 58. (c), 59. (b), 60. (b), 61. (c), 62. (a), 63. (c), 64. (c), 65. (b), 66. (d), 67. (c), 68. (b), 69. (d), 70. (b), 71. (c), 72. (b), 73. (d), 74. (a), 75. (b), 76. (b), 77. (d), 78. (d), 79. (c), 80. (a), 81. (b), 82. (b), 83. (b), 84. (a), 85. (c), 86. (a), 87. (d), 88. (c), 89. (c), 90. (d), 91. (b), 92. (a), 93. (c), 94. (b), 95. (d), 96. (b), 97. (a), 98. (d), 99. (a), 100. (c)

Click Here to Download 2014 Solved Paper GS (Paper -1) in PDF

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UPSC Essay Paper: Structure, Significance, Toppers and Their Marks

Unlock success in UPSC Mains with expert insights on the UPSC Essay Paper. Learn structure, scoring, and top scorer trends. FAQs answered for mastering this 250-mark exam challenge.

UPSC Essay Paper: Structure

The Union Public Service Commission conducts Civil Services Exams every year which comprises three stages i.e Prelims, Mains, and the Interview. The Mains exam consists of multiple papers, with the first paper being the UPSC Essay paper. In this article, we will explore every aspect of the UPSC Essay paper. Before going further let’s see the structure of the UPSC exam .

Marks Distribution of Mains Examination: The 250-Mark Weightage of UPSC Essay Paper

Each Paper of mains exam of UPSC has an equal weightage of 250 marks. So UPSC Essay paper has a weightage of 250 marks, and marks scored in the UPSC Essay paper were considered for evaluation.

Structure of UPSC Essay Paper: Sections, Topics, and Scoring

• The UPSC CSE Essay Paper in Mains Exam consists of two sections A and B with four topics each of 125 marks and a total of 250 (125×2) marks.  
• Candidates are given a choice to select a topic from each section and write about it in 1,000 to 2,000 words within the given time of three hours.

Importance of UPSC Essay Paper: Probing Skills, Knowledge, and Ethics for Administration

The UPSC essay paper of the UPSC mains examination is a comprehensive tool for evaluating a candidate’s intellectual, analytical, communication, and decision-making abilities. It extended beyond the factual knowledge, emphasizing the qualities necessary for effective and ethical administration. Let us see the importance of essay paper in UPSC Mains:

• Articulation of Ideas- The UPSC Essay paper assesses a candidate’s ability to articulate thoughts and ideas coherently. It tests the candidate’s proficiency in expressing complex ideas in a clear and concise manner.
• Analytical Skills- The UPSC essay paper evaluates analytical and critical thinking skills. Candidates are expected to analyze a given topic from various angles and present a balanced view.
• Integration of Knowledge- It requires candidates to integrate knowledge acquired from various subjects. This reflects the interdisciplinary approach necessary for administrative services.
• Current Affairs Awareness- The UPSC Essay topics often cover contemporary issues. This ensures that candidates are not only aware of current affairs but also capable of providing insightful perspectives on them.
• Language Proficiency- It assesses the candidate’s command over language, including grammar, vocabulary, and overall language proficiency.
• Time Management- Writing two essays in a span of three hours challenges a candidate’s time management skills. It assesses their ability to prioritize and allocate time effectively.
• Personality Assessment- The UPSC essay paper provides insight into a candidate’s personality, thought process, and values. It helps the UPSC to evaluate whether the candidate possesses the qualities required for a career in public service.
• Communication Skills- Effective communication is a crucial aspect of administrative roles. The UPSC Essay paper evaluates a candidate’s ability to communicate ideas clearly and persuasively.
• Decision-Making Abilities- The UPSC Essay topics often require candidates to take a stance or make a decision. This helps in assessing their decision-making abilities and the rationale behind their choices.
• Ethical Dimension- Essay topics may also touch upon ethical dilemmas. This allows the UPSC to evaluate a candidate’s understanding of ethical principles and their ability to apply them in real-life situations.

Key Areas Evaluated in UPSC Essay Paper: Skills, Knowledge, and Effective Communication

Candidates should keep in mind that the UPSC Essay paper is an opportunity to showcase not only their knowledge but also their ability to think critically and communicate effectively. Practicing diverse topics and refining writing skills are essential for success in this component of the UPSC examination.

• This involves demonstrating knowledge, facts, and insights about the subject matter. 
• The ability to incorporate relevant data, examples, and references is essential.
• Ideas should be presented in a coherent manner, with a well-defined introduction, body, and conclusion. 
• Logical sequencing of thoughts is crucial for effective communication.
• This involves evaluating different perspectives, weighing pros and cons, and presenting a balanced view. 
• Analytical skills are essential for addressing complex issues and offering nuanced solutions.
• Language Proficiency: The command over language, including grammar, vocabulary, and sentence structure, is a vital aspect of the evaluation. 
• Merely reproducing information from study materials is not sufficient. 
• Candidates are encouraged to present their own ideas, viewpoints, and conclusions.
• The essay should directly address the key issues raised in the question.
• Transitions between paragraphs and ideas should be smooth, ensuring a cohesive narrative throughout the essay.
• Conclusion and Summation- The essay should conclude with a strong summary of the key points discussed. The conclusion should be insightful and leave a lasting impression on the reader.

Significance of UPSC Essay Paper in Mains: Trends and Analysis

• High Scoring Potential- If we go through the marksheet of toppers and selected candidates in general we can see that candidate gets highest marks in essay out of other nine subjects in UPSC mains.
• No barrier in content- There are no content barriers in the essay paper. It stands unique among the exam components as candidates enjoy the freedom to explore and elaborate on the topic without being constrained by specific question conditions.
• Gives a boost for other papers- Essay paper of UPSC mains is scheduled on the first day of UPSC mains exam schedule so writing a good essay can give a confidence boost which will help in rest of the papers.
• Opinion Based Topics- Last few years papers of essay shows the inclination of essay topics towards opinion based topics either focusing on society or philosophy. In a nutshell UPSC puts a general topic in which its test candidate’s intelligence and opinion about the topic.

Top Scorer Trends in UPSC Essay Paper: Marks of Toppers Over the Years

Let us see the marks in essay paper of the toppers over the years

• The UPSC Essay Paper of the UPSC Mains examination is a pivotal component, embodying the essence of the Commission’s assessment philosophy. Beyond its weightage of 250 marks , the UPSC Essay holds the power to illuminate a candidate’s intellectual prowess, analytical acumen, and communication finesse. 
• The structured evaluation criteria, ranging from articulation of ideas to decision-making abilities and ethical considerations, reflect the multifaceted demands of a career in public service. 
• As evidenced by the consistently high scores of toppers in this section, the UPSC Essay Paper not only distinguishes itself as a scoring opportunity but also as a platform for candidates to exhibit their unique perspectives and original thinking. 
• By emphasising the significance of critical analysis, effective communication, and a nuanced understanding of diverse topics, the UPSC essay remains a cornerstone in identifying individuals equipped for the challenges of responsible and ethical administration.

UPSC Essay Paper FAQs

What is the upsc essay paper, is the essay paper in upsc mains qualifying in nature, do toppers always get highest marks in upsc essay paper, what is the word limit for each essay.

UPDATED :     

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